Postby RamboPreacher » August 12th, 2009, 1:53 am
Dawgs10,
I disagree (but only when it comes to that particular paragraph/point). With the exception of Peter's message in Acts 2, I believe that all other instances were within the auspices of a "private" group/fellowship. And further the Acts 2 account is of a different kind of "tongues", apparently (the miracle is no less, in that people heard their own language, whether that was from the speaker, or whether the hearers were all blessed as instantaneous interpretations in the hearing).
Either way, the hearing of tongues, in that place was heard not as the same as the babbling, as the pagans did during that time, but it was heard plainly in their own language.
Further, I believe that Paul taught this in his first epistle to the Corinthians; that tongues manifestation can and should be used, but not when non-believers are around (intimating a public venue). and especially when it is used as a "sign of being spiritual", and not for personal edification, or when it its a "message" (requiring an interpretation).
I do agree that we should otherwise embrace the doc, as you mentioned. And further, I am not one against speaking in tongues. not at all, just not as a "sign of spirituality", which it ha sbecome in many places, and not in public arena's (outside of the "church-setting", which may be in public) without interpretation.
Thanks, Brent "RamboPreacher" Hoefling